10th September 2022 current affairs Quiz for UPSC Prelims
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Question 1 of 17
1. Question
2 points
Introduction of Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) has the potential to provide which
of the following benefits?
1. Reduced dependency on cash
2. Lower seigniorage
3. Reduced settlement risk
Select the correct answer code:
Correct
Ans b)
Introduction of CBDC has the potential to provide significant benefits, such as reduced
dependency on cash, higher seigniorage due to lower transaction costs, reduced settlement
risk.
Incorrect
Ans b)
Introduction of CBDC has the potential to provide significant benefits, such as reduced
dependency on cash, higher seigniorage due to lower transaction costs, reduced settlement
risk.
Question 2 of 17
2. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding the One Nation One Fertiliser Scheme:
1. The scheme functions under the aegis of the department of fertilizer, the Ministry of
Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
2. The scheme introduces a single brand for fertilisers and logo under the fertiliser
subsidy scheme, Pradhanmantri Bhartiya Janurvarak Pariyojna (PMBJP).
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct;
Correct
Ans b)
One Nation One Fertiliser Scheme
The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers has decided to implement One Nation One
Fertiliser Scheme.
This is done by introducing a “Single Brand for Fertilisers and Logo” under the
fertiliser subsidy scheme named “Pradhanmantri Bhartiya Janurvarak Pariyojna”
(PMBJP).
The single brand name for UREA, DAP, MOP and NPK etc. would be BHARAT UREA,
BHARAT DAP, BHARAT MOP and BHARAT NPK etc. respectively for all Fertiliser
Companies, State Trading Entities (STEs) and Fertiliser Marketing Entities (FMEs).
A logo indicating Fertiliser subsidy scheme namely Pradhanmantri Bhartiya
Janurvarak Pariyojna will be used on said fertiliser bags.
Under the new “One Nation One Fertiliser” scheme, companies are allowed to
display their name, brand, logo and other relevant product information only on one-
third space of their bags.
On the remaining two-thirds space, the “Bharat” brand and Pradhanmantri Bharatiya
Jan Urvarak Pariyojana logo will have to be shown.
The government gives subsidies to fertilizer companies under the PMBJP (Pradhan
Mantri Bhartiya Janurvarak Pariyojna) scheme, the benefits of which, the companies
would in turn pass on to farmers.
Incorrect
Ans b)
One Nation One Fertiliser Scheme
The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers has decided to implement One Nation One
Fertiliser Scheme.
This is done by introducing a “Single Brand for Fertilisers and Logo” under the
fertiliser subsidy scheme named “Pradhanmantri Bhartiya Janurvarak Pariyojna”
(PMBJP).
The single brand name for UREA, DAP, MOP and NPK etc. would be BHARAT UREA,
BHARAT DAP, BHARAT MOP and BHARAT NPK etc. respectively for all Fertiliser
Companies, State Trading Entities (STEs) and Fertiliser Marketing Entities (FMEs).
A logo indicating Fertiliser subsidy scheme namely Pradhanmantri Bhartiya
Janurvarak Pariyojna will be used on said fertiliser bags.
Under the new “One Nation One Fertiliser” scheme, companies are allowed to
display their name, brand, logo and other relevant product information only on one-
third space of their bags.
On the remaining two-thirds space, the “Bharat” brand and Pradhanmantri Bharatiya
Jan Urvarak Pariyojana logo will have to be shown.
The government gives subsidies to fertilizer companies under the PMBJP (Pradhan
Mantri Bhartiya Janurvarak Pariyojna) scheme, the benefits of which, the companies
would in turn pass on to farmers.
Question 3 of 17
3. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding Lumpy Skin Disease.
1. Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD) is a viral infection of cattle.
2. There are no reported cases of Lumpy Skin Disease in India.
3. The LSD spreads through houseflies and mosquitoes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans b
LSD is caused by the lumpy skin disease virus (LSDV), which is a member of the capripoxvirus
genus in the poxviridae family.
Several states, including Gujarat and Rajasthan, have been battling the outbreak of Lumpy
Skin Disease (LSD), a viral infection of cattle.
The LSDV spreads through blood-sucking vectors like ticks and mites like houseflies,
mosquitoes, etc. It also spreads through contaminated water, fodder and feed.
Incorrect
Ans b
LSD is caused by the lumpy skin disease virus (LSDV), which is a member of the capripoxvirus
genus in the poxviridae family.
Several states, including Gujarat and Rajasthan, have been battling the outbreak of Lumpy
Skin Disease (LSD), a viral infection of cattle.
The LSDV spreads through blood-sucking vectors like ticks and mites like houseflies,
mosquitoes, etc. It also spreads through contaminated water, fodder and feed.
Question 4 of 17
4. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding Automatic Number Plate Recognition
(ANPR) Cameras:
1. It is a system capable of reading vehicle number plates without human intervention.
2. The system uses optical character recognition on images to read vehicle registration
plates in order to create vehicle location data.
3. In India, only number plates that came after 2019 will be registered by the ANPR
camera.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Correct
Ans d
Automatic Number Plate Recognition (ANPR) Camera
It is a highly accurate system capable of reading vehicle number plates without
human intervention.
It uses optical character recognition on images to read vehicle registration plates to
create vehicle location data.
It can use existing closed-circuit television, road-rule enforcement cameras, or
cameras specifically designed for the task.
ANPR in India
The Road Transport and Highways Ministry is now moving ahead with a plan to
replace toll plazas with ANPR that could read number plates.
The plan is to remove toll plazas on national highways and instead rely on ANPR
cameras, which will read vehicle number plates and automatically deduct toll from
the linked bank accounts of vehicle owners.
The model is simple: Entry and exit of toll roads will have cameras capable of reading
number plates, and toll will be deducted based on these cameras.
Not all number plates in India can be read, and only those that have come after 2019
will be registered by the cameras.
The government, in 2019, had come up with a rule mandating passenger vehicle to
have company-fitted number plates, and only these number plates can be read by
cameras.
The government plans to come up with a scheme to replace older number plates.
Incorrect
Ans d
Automatic Number Plate Recognition (ANPR) Camera
It is a highly accurate system capable of reading vehicle number plates without
human intervention.
It uses optical character recognition on images to read vehicle registration plates to
create vehicle location data.
It can use existing closed-circuit television, road-rule enforcement cameras, or
cameras specifically designed for the task.
ANPR in India
The Road Transport and Highways Ministry is now moving ahead with a plan to
replace toll plazas with ANPR that could read number plates.
The plan is to remove toll plazas on national highways and instead rely on ANPR
cameras, which will read vehicle number plates and automatically deduct toll from
the linked bank accounts of vehicle owners.
The model is simple: Entry and exit of toll roads will have cameras capable of reading
number plates, and toll will be deducted based on these cameras.
Not all number plates in India can be read, and only those that have come after 2019
will be registered by the cameras.
The government, in 2019, had come up with a rule mandating passenger vehicle to
have company-fitted number plates, and only these number plates can be read by
cameras.
The government plans to come up with a scheme to replace older number plates.
Question 5 of 17
5. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding the Malvinas Island:
1. It is an internally self-governing overseas territory of the United Kingdom and is
located in the Pacific Ocean.
2. It is a disputed territory between the UK and Argentina and is located to the west of
the Strait of Magellan.
Which of the above Statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Ans d)
Falkland Islands, also called Malvinas Islands or Spanish Islas Malvinas, internally self-
governing overseas territory of the United Kingdom in the South Atlantic Ocean.
It lies northeast of the southern tip of South America and a similar distance east of the Strait
of Magellan.
It is a disputed Island between the UK and Argentina.
Incorrect
Ans d)
Falkland Islands, also called Malvinas Islands or Spanish Islas Malvinas, internally self-
governing overseas territory of the United Kingdom in the South Atlantic Ocean.
It lies northeast of the southern tip of South America and a similar distance east of the Strait
of Magellan.
It is a disputed Island between the UK and Argentina.
Question 6 of 17
6. Question
2 points
Which of the following will be considered as lending under Weaker Sections category
for Priority sector loans?
1. Small and Marginal Farmers
2. Artisans, village and cottage industries where individual credit limits do not exceed
₹10 lakh.
3. Self Help Groups
4. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
5. Persons with disabilities
Select the correct answer code:
Correct
Ans b
Priority sector loans to the following borrowers will be considered as lending under Weaker
Sections category:
(i) Small and Marginal Farmers
(ii) Artisans, village and cottage industries where individual credit limits do not exceed
₹1 lakh
(iii) Beneficiaries under Government Sponsored Schemes such as National Rural
Livelihood Mission (NRLM), National Urban Livelihood Mission (NULM) and Self
Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS)
(iv) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(v) Beneficiaries of Differential Rate of Interest (DRI) scheme
(vi) Self Help Groups
(vii) Distressed farmers indebted to non-institutional lenders
(viii) Distressed persons other than farmers, with loan amount not exceeding ₹1 lakh per
borrower to prepay their debt to non-institutional lenders
(ix) Individual women beneficiaries up to ₹1 lakh per borrower (For UCBs, existing loans
to women will continue to be classified under weaker sections till their
maturity/repayment.)
(x) Persons with disabilities
(xi) Minority communities as may be notified by Government of India from time to time.
Incorrect
Ans b
Priority sector loans to the following borrowers will be considered as lending under Weaker
Sections category:
(i) Small and Marginal Farmers
(ii) Artisans, village and cottage industries where individual credit limits do not exceed
₹1 lakh
(iii) Beneficiaries under Government Sponsored Schemes such as National Rural
Livelihood Mission (NRLM), National Urban Livelihood Mission (NULM) and Self
Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS)
(iv) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(v) Beneficiaries of Differential Rate of Interest (DRI) scheme
(vi) Self Help Groups
(vii) Distressed farmers indebted to non-institutional lenders
(viii) Distressed persons other than farmers, with loan amount not exceeding ₹1 lakh per
borrower to prepay their debt to non-institutional lenders
(ix) Individual women beneficiaries up to ₹1 lakh per borrower (For UCBs, existing loans
to women will continue to be classified under weaker sections till their
maturity/repayment.)
(x) Persons with disabilities
(xi) Minority communities as may be notified by Government of India from time to time.
Question 7 of 17
7. Question
2 points
Which of the following statements best describe the Hayabusa-2 mission, recently seen
in news?
Correct
Ans a
The Hayabusa-2 mission was launched in December 2014 when the spacecraft was sent on a
six-year voyage to study the asteroid Ryugu by the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency’s
(JAXA).
Incorrect
Ans a
The Hayabusa-2 mission was launched in December 2014 when the spacecraft was sent on a
six-year voyage to study the asteroid Ryugu by the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency’s
(JAXA).
Question 8 of 17
8. Question
2 points
World Happiness Report is released by
Correct
Ans d
Incorrect
Ans d
Question 9 of 17
9. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements.
1. Pulses constitute the maximum number of crops announced under minimum
support price (MSP).
2. Sugarcane, cotton, copra and raw jute are the commercial crops covered under MSP.
3. Farmers can demand MSP as a matter of right.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans c
The Centre announces MSPs for 23 crops, including seven cereals (paddy, wheat, maize,
bajra, jowar, ragi and barley), five pulses (chana, tur/arhar, moong, urad and masur), seven
oilseeds (mustard-rapeseed, groundnut, soyabean, sunflower, sesamum, safflower and
nigerseed) and four commercial crops (sugarcane, cotton, copra and raw jute).
Farmers cannot demand MSP as a matter of right.
Incorrect
Ans c
The Centre announces MSPs for 23 crops, including seven cereals (paddy, wheat, maize,
bajra, jowar, ragi and barley), five pulses (chana, tur/arhar, moong, urad and masur), seven
oilseeds (mustard-rapeseed, groundnut, soyabean, sunflower, sesamum, safflower and
nigerseed) and four commercial crops (sugarcane, cotton, copra and raw jute).
Farmers cannot demand MSP as a matter of right.
Question 10 of 17
10. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements with respect to the Competition (Amendment) Bill,
2022:
1. The Competition Act, 2002 mandates the parties indulging in merger, acquisition, or
amalgamation to notify the Commission of the combination only on the basis of
‘asset’ or ‘turnover’.
2. The Bill proposes to add a ‘deal value’ threshold, which mandates to notify the
Commission of any transaction with a deal value in excess of 2,000 crore.
3. The Amendment bill establishes the Competition Commission of India (CCI) for
regulating market competition.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Ans a
The Competition (Amendment) Bill, 2022
The Indian Competition Act was passed in 2002, but it came into effect only seven
years later.
The Act establishes the Competition Commission of India (CCI) for regulating market
competition.
The Competition Commission primarily pursues three issues of anti-competitive
practices in the market: anti-competitive agreements, abuse of dominance and
combinations.
The dynamics of the market changes rapidly due to technological advancements,
artificial intelligence, and the increasing importance of factors other than price.
Hence, it is necessary to sustain and promote market competition.
Therefore, a review committee was established in 2019 which proposed several
major amendments.
The Amendments
Section 5 currently says parties indulging in merger, acquisition, or amalgamation
need to notify the Commission of the combination only on the basis of ‘asset’ or
‘turnover’.
The new Bill proposes to add a ‘deal value’ threshold.
It will be mandatory to notify the Commission of any transaction with a deal value in
excess of 2,000 crore and if either of the parties has ‘substantial business operations
in India’.
The Commission shall frame regulations to prescribe the requirements for assessing
whether an enterprise has ‘substantial business operations in India’.
This change will strengthen the Commission’s review mechanism, particularly in the
digital and infrastructure space.
A majority of such changes were not reported earlier, as the asset or turnover values
did not meet the jurisdictional thresholds.
Gun-Jumping
Parties should not go ahead with a combination prior to its approval.
If the combining parties close a notified transaction before the approval, or have
consummated a reportable transaction without bringing it to the Commission’s
knowledge, it is seen as gun-jumping.
The penalty for gun-jumping was a total of 1% of the asset or turnover.
This is now proposed to be 1% of the deal value.
Incorrect
Ans a
The Competition (Amendment) Bill, 2022
The Indian Competition Act was passed in 2002, but it came into effect only seven
years later.
The Act establishes the Competition Commission of India (CCI) for regulating market
competition.
The Competition Commission primarily pursues three issues of anti-competitive
practices in the market: anti-competitive agreements, abuse of dominance and
combinations.
The dynamics of the market changes rapidly due to technological advancements,
artificial intelligence, and the increasing importance of factors other than price.
Hence, it is necessary to sustain and promote market competition.
Therefore, a review committee was established in 2019 which proposed several
major amendments.
The Amendments
Section 5 currently says parties indulging in merger, acquisition, or amalgamation
need to notify the Commission of the combination only on the basis of ‘asset’ or
‘turnover’.
The new Bill proposes to add a ‘deal value’ threshold.
It will be mandatory to notify the Commission of any transaction with a deal value in
excess of 2,000 crore and if either of the parties has ‘substantial business operations
in India’.
The Commission shall frame regulations to prescribe the requirements for assessing
whether an enterprise has ‘substantial business operations in India’.
This change will strengthen the Commission’s review mechanism, particularly in the
digital and infrastructure space.
A majority of such changes were not reported earlier, as the asset or turnover values
did not meet the jurisdictional thresholds.
Gun-Jumping
Parties should not go ahead with a combination prior to its approval.
If the combining parties close a notified transaction before the approval, or have
consummated a reportable transaction without bringing it to the Commission’s
knowledge, it is seen as gun-jumping.
The penalty for gun-jumping was a total of 1% of the asset or turnover.
This is now proposed to be 1% of the deal value.
Question 11 of 17
11. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding the INS Vikrant Aircraft Carrier:
1. At present, India has only one aircraft carrier, INS Vikramaditya, which is built on a
Russian platform.
2. INS Vikrant was built by India's state-run Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL).
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Ans c
INS Vikrant Aircraft Carrier is India’s first indigenous aircraft carrier and the largest warship
to have ever been built in India.
The ‘INS Vikramaditya’, which was commissioned in 2013 and which is currently the Navy’s
only aircraft carrier, started out as the Soviet-Russian warship ‘Admiral Gorshkov’.
Incorrect
Ans c
INS Vikrant Aircraft Carrier is India’s first indigenous aircraft carrier and the largest warship
to have ever been built in India.
The ‘INS Vikramaditya’, which was commissioned in 2013 and which is currently the Navy’s
only aircraft carrier, started out as the Soviet-Russian warship ‘Admiral Gorshkov’.
Question 12 of 17
12. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
1. The aggregate resources raised for financial year 2019 by the Union government was
lesser than the States.
2. The States' share in the divisible pool of taxes was greater than the value mandated
by the Finance Commission (FC).
3. The aggregate expenditure incurred for financial year 2019 by the States were
greater than the Union government.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Ans c
Divisible Pool
Divisible pool is that portion of gross tax revenue which is distributed between the
Centre and the States.
The divisible pool consists of all taxes, except surcharges and cess levied for specific
purpose, net of collection charges.
According to the 15th Finance Commission’s report, in FY19, the Union government
raised 62.7% of the total resources raised by the Union government and States,
while States had borne 62.4% of the aggregate expenditure.
Although the 14th and 15th FC raised the share of States in gross taxes to over 40%,
the actual share never reached this mandated level.
After reaching a peak of 36.6% in FY19, States’ share fell and has since stagnated at
around 29%.
At the same time, the gap between the share recommended by the FC and the
actual devolution has widened to more than 11 percentage points, the highest in at
least two decades.
Even though FC raised the States’ share in Central taxes, it didn’t translate into an
increase in the actual share devolved as the divisible pool shrank.
Incorrect
Ans c
Divisible Pool
Divisible pool is that portion of gross tax revenue which is distributed between the
Centre and the States.
The divisible pool consists of all taxes, except surcharges and cess levied for specific
purpose, net of collection charges.
According to the 15th Finance Commission’s report, in FY19, the Union government
raised 62.7% of the total resources raised by the Union government and States,
while States had borne 62.4% of the aggregate expenditure.
Although the 14th and 15th FC raised the share of States in gross taxes to over 40%,
the actual share never reached this mandated level.
After reaching a peak of 36.6% in FY19, States’ share fell and has since stagnated at
around 29%.
At the same time, the gap between the share recommended by the FC and the
actual devolution has widened to more than 11 percentage points, the highest in at
least two decades.
Even though FC raised the States’ share in Central taxes, it didn’t translate into an
increase in the actual share devolved as the divisible pool shrank.
Question 13 of 17
13. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding Ghadar Party.
1. Ghadar Party was established by Indians mostly belonging to Punjab, living abroad.
2. Its aim was to lead a revolutionary fight against the British in India.
3. Pandurang Khankhoje was one of the founding members of the Ghadar Party.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans d
Incorrect
Ans d
Question 14 of 17
14. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding Montreux Convention.
1. Montreux Convention, is an international agreement regarding the Regime of the
Straits.
2. Under Montreux Convention, Turkey has control over both the Bosporus and
Dardanelles straits.
3. In the event of a war, the pact gives Turkey the right to regulate the transit of naval
warships and to block the straits to warships belonging to the countries involved in
the conflict.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans d
Incorrect
Ans d
Question 15 of 17
15. Question
2 points
The phrase “quiet quitting”, recently in trend refers to
Correct
Ans b
The phrase “quiet quitting”, doesn’t refer to employees actually leaving their jobs, but
instead, doing the bare minimum required of them.
This could entail leaving work exactly at the end of one’s shift, demanding additional pay for
extra work, not signing up for ambitious projects, separating one’s identity from their jobs,
and/or setting clear work-life boundaries.
Incorrect
Ans b
The phrase “quiet quitting”, doesn’t refer to employees actually leaving their jobs, but
instead, doing the bare minimum required of them.
This could entail leaving work exactly at the end of one’s shift, demanding additional pay for
extra work, not signing up for ambitious projects, separating one’s identity from their jobs,
and/or setting clear work-life boundaries.
Question 16 of 17
16. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements:
1. Anang Tal is an ancient mound located in Rajasthan and is a monument of national
importance.
2. The lake was built by Prithviraj Chauhan the Tomar King on the event of his
coronation as a King.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Correct
Ans c
Anang Tal Site
The ancient mound is located at Mehrauli in South Delhi.
It has been declared a monument of national importance through a gazette
notification by the Ministry of Culture.
The Anang Tal Lake is believed to have been built a thousand years ago.
It is said to be created by Tomar King, Anangpal II, in 1,060 AD.
Anang Tal has a strong Rajasthan connection as Maharaja Anangpal is the maternal
grandfather of Prithviraj Chauhan.
The millennium old Anang Tal signifies the beginning of Delhi.
Incorrect
Ans c
Anang Tal Site
The ancient mound is located at Mehrauli in South Delhi.
It has been declared a monument of national importance through a gazette
notification by the Ministry of Culture.
The Anang Tal Lake is believed to have been built a thousand years ago.
It is said to be created by Tomar King, Anangpal II, in 1,060 AD.
Anang Tal has a strong Rajasthan connection as Maharaja Anangpal is the maternal
grandfather of Prithviraj Chauhan.
The millennium old Anang Tal signifies the beginning of Delhi.
Question 17 of 17
17. Question
2 points
Consider the following statements regarding the Forest Laws in India:
1. According to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, State Forest Departments do not have the
jurisdiction over Reserve Forests (RF) and Protected Forests (PF).
2. The Forest Act 1980, applies to all kinds of forests, whether under the control of the
Forest or the Revenue Department.
3. Clearance for non-forest use of forestland under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980
requires giving back twice the area for compensatory afforestation (CA) from
Revenue Department to Forest Department.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Ans b
Broadly, state Forest Departments have jurisdiction over two types of forests notified under
the Indian Forest (IF) Act, 1927:
Reserve Forests (RF), where no rights are allowed unless specified.
Protected Forests (PF), where no rights are barred unless specified.
Certain forests are managed by state Revenue Departments.
Incorrect
Ans b
Broadly, state Forest Departments have jurisdiction over two types of forests notified under
the Indian Forest (IF) Act, 1927:
Reserve Forests (RF), where no rights are allowed unless specified.
Protected Forests (PF), where no rights are barred unless specified.
Certain forests are managed by state Revenue Departments.