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- UPSC Static Quiz, June 2023
18 June 2023
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18th June 2023 Static Quiz for UPSC Prelims
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following functions is/are performed by the President of India?
1. Appointment of solicitor general of India.
2. Constitution of the Finance Commission.
3. Approval of international treaties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The solicitor general of India is appointed by a cabinet committee of the Union government. In addition to the AG, there are other law officers of the Government of India. They are the solicitor general of India and an additional solicitor general of India. They assist the AG in the fulfillment of his official responsibilities. It should be noted here that only the office of the AG is created by the Constitution. In other words, Article 76 does not mention about the solicitor
• Statement 2 is correct. Finance Commission is constituted by the President every fifth year or even earlier. Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. International treaties are approved by the Parliament. The international treaties and agreements are negotiated and concluded on behalf of the President. However, they are subject to the approval of the Parliament.Incorrect
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The solicitor general of India is appointed by a cabinet committee of the Union government. In addition to the AG, there are other law officers of the Government of India. They are the solicitor general of India and an additional solicitor general of India. They assist the AG in the fulfillment of his official responsibilities. It should be noted here that only the office of the AG is created by the Constitution. In other words, Article 76 does not mention about the solicitor
• Statement 2 is correct. Finance Commission is constituted by the President every fifth year or even earlier. Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. International treaties are approved by the Parliament. The international treaties and agreements are negotiated and concluded on behalf of the President. However, they are subject to the approval of the Parliament. -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2 pointsAs per the Constitution of India, the sovereignty resides in
Correct
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
• The introduction to the Constitution declares that the constitution of India was adopted and enacted by the people (citizens) of India and they are the custodians of the republic. Hence, the sovereignty resides in Citizens of India.
• The Preamble reveals four ingredients or components:
1. Source of authority of the Constitution: The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India.
2. Nature of Indian State: It declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular democratic and republican polity.
3. Objectives of the Constitution: It specifies justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the objectives.
4. Date of adoption of the Constitution: It stipulates November 26, 1949 as the date.
The preamble to the Indian Constitution
WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, DO HEREBY
ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.Incorrect
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
• The introduction to the Constitution declares that the constitution of India was adopted and enacted by the people (citizens) of India and they are the custodians of the republic. Hence, the sovereignty resides in Citizens of India.
• The Preamble reveals four ingredients or components:
1. Source of authority of the Constitution: The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India.
2. Nature of Indian State: It declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular democratic and republican polity.
3. Objectives of the Constitution: It specifies justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the objectives.
4. Date of adoption of the Constitution: It stipulates November 26, 1949 as the date.
The preamble to the Indian Constitution
WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, DO HEREBY
ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION. -
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements is/are correct about Article 1 of the Indian Constitution?
1. It mentions the name of the country and the type of political system that India has.
2. It says that the Indian Federation is a result of an agreement among the states.
3. It classifies the territory of India into four categories.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
• Statement 1 is correct. Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’. This provision deals with two things: one, name of the country, and two, type of polity.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. In article 1 of the Constitution, India is described as ‘Union’ although its Constitution is federal in structure. Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede from the federation. The federation is a Union because it is indestructible. The country is an integral whole and divided into different states only for the convenience of administration.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. According to Article 1, the territory of India can be classified into three categories:
1. Territories of the states
2. Union territories
3. Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time.Incorrect
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
• Statement 1 is correct. Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’. This provision deals with two things: one, name of the country, and two, type of polity.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. In article 1 of the Constitution, India is described as ‘Union’ although its Constitution is federal in structure. Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede from the federation. The federation is a Union because it is indestructible. The country is an integral whole and divided into different states only for the convenience of administration.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. According to Article 1, the territory of India can be classified into three categories:
1. Territories of the states
2. Union territories
3. Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time. -
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
2 pointsWhich one of the following Constitutional Amendment Act made it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a constitutional amendment bill?
Correct
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
• The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a constitutional amendment bill. Thus, the President has no veto power in respect of a constitutional amendment bill. Hence, option B is correct.Incorrect
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
• The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a constitutional amendment bill. Thus, the President has no veto power in respect of a constitutional amendment bill. Hence, option B is correct. -
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
1. The article 262 of the Constitution empowers the Supreme Court of India for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes.
2. The River Boards Act of 1956 was enacted under the provision of article 262 of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The article 261 empowers the Parliament of India for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes.
• Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes. It makes two provisions:
• Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.
• Parliament may also provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint.
• Statement 2 is correct. Under this provision of article 262, the Parliament has enacted two laws [the River Boards Act (1956) and the Inter-State Water Disputes Act (1956)]. The River Boards Act provides for the establishment of river boards for the regulation and development of interstate river and river valleys. A river board is established by the Central government on the request of the state governments concerned to advise them.Incorrect
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The article 261 empowers the Parliament of India for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes.
• Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes. It makes two provisions:
• Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.
• Parliament may also provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint.
• Statement 2 is correct. Under this provision of article 262, the Parliament has enacted two laws [the River Boards Act (1956) and the Inter-State Water Disputes Act (1956)]. The River Boards Act provides for the establishment of river boards for the regulation and development of interstate river and river valleys. A river board is established by the Central government on the request of the state governments concerned to advise them.
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